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Some contend, that in doing so the bill absolutely alters the law as it stood heretofore, and ought, therefore, to be viewed as enactory; whilst others maintain that is simply a declaratory bill, not altering the law at all, but merely expressing, in fuller or in clearer terms, what had always been law, though silently departed from by the usage, which, from the time of Queen Anne, had allowed a determinate preponderance to the rights of property in the person of the patron.

If enactory, then why did the House of Lords give judgment against those who allowed weight to the "call?"

If enactory, then why did the House of Lords give judgment against those who allowed weight to the 'call?'